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Hands to bid preferably 2/1 or 2/1 with Gazzilli.

#1 User is offline   kiwinacol 

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  Posted 2016-June-07, 01:49

Hello,

Dealer N, all NV.

NORTH
S AKQT9 H A52 D T87 C A3

S 3 H KJT74 D AK943 C T2

I've redealt EW hands about 20 times in my Jack computer programme. I've also purchased Dealmaster Pro but haven't learnt how to use it for faster and larger samples. Jack uses a DD solver and it bids and makes grands in S's or H's or D's on many redeals. I'd hope to get to a small slam as the 13 tricks look well below par with out double vision.

Jack seems to bid it without any flair, 1S - f1N; 3N pass, using 2/1 but not Gazzilli. Can you use either of theses approaches to do better? Thank you.


It seems to me that STD may produce a better description of the south hand, being able to bid 2H over 1S and perhaps get the D's in at a later stage?
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#2 User is offline   Kungsgeten 

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Posted 2016-June-07, 04:50

I do not think it is unreasonable to bid 2/1 with the south hand. 5-5 shape with nice values. Singleton in opener's suit is a minus. I guess the reason for not opening 1NT is that the north hand is too strong (evaluated as 18--19)?

In that case, here's an example of the bidding:

1-1NT;
2NT-3; (2NT is 18--19, 3 is a transfer)
3-4; (3 confirms fit, 4 is a natural serious slam try)
4NT-5; (4NT is 6KCB 1430, 5 shows 3 keycards (out of 6) and no red queen)
6 (we're missing both red queens, but should have good chances anyway)
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#3 User is offline   kiwinacol 

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Posted 2016-June-07, 17:24

View PostKungsgeten, on 2016-June-07, 04:50, said:

I do not think it is unreasonable to bid 2/1 with the south hand. 5-5 shape with nice values. Singleton in opener's suit is a minus. I guess the reason for not opening 1NT is that the north hand is too strong (evaluated as 18--19)?

Thanks for the reply Kungsgeten. Yes the hand did seem just outside my 15-17 1NT. Besides that, one advantage of Gazzilli that proponents claim is that you don't have to open 1NT with a 5M

In that case, here's an example of the bidding:

1-1NT;
2NT-3; (2NT is 18--19, 3 is a transfer)
3-4; (3 confirms fit,

if opener didn't conform fit, say by bidding 3NT (other suit bids also confirming but cues). What would your 4D be, and new suit or another transfer to H's?

4 is a natural serious slam try)
4NT-5; (4NT is 6KCB 1430, 5 shows 3 keycards (out of 6) and no red queen)
6 (we're missing both red queens, but should have good chances anyway)


OK, thanks.
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#4 User is offline   fromageGB 

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Posted 2016-June-09, 04:22

View Postkiwinacol, on 2016-June-07, 01:49, said:

Jack seems to bid it without any flair, 1S - f1N; 3N pass, using 2/1 but not Gazzilli. Can you use either of theses approaches to do better? Thank you.

2/1 and Gazzilli
South's hand is awkward to describe, and you definitely want to show those suits. I would not object to treating it with 2 GF then rebidding diamonds. However, if you start with 1NT it could go :
1 - 1NT!
2 (Gazzilli) - 2 (any 8+)
and from here it depends on your Gazzilli. If 17+ ...
2NT - 3 (must be 5 because opener would have bid hearts with 4)
4 (cue agreeing hearts, as he failed to bid 3 earlier) - 4 (ace ask in hearts)
4NT (0+Q, or 1, or 3-Q) - 5 (do you have 3? Interested in slam in spite of the lack of Q because of the prospects of disposing possible club loser on spades)
5 (yes, I do have 3, and this is my cheapest K) - 6

Edit - this assumes you are not playing transfers to a Gazzilli sequence 2NT (I don't). If you were, adjust accordingly.
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