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Competitive decisions with borderline hands

#1 User is offline   apollo1201 

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Posted 2015-November-11, 11:07

Dears, an issue from yesterday's IMP where both I and pard had some borderline hands (all green).

Auction starts with pass 1C (3+, 12+ playing 5 cM) and you have

A6
AKQ54
85
AT73

What is best? X, 1H, 1NT? The latter actions will let you play there and easily make... but my pard Xed and exciting things happenned.

Responder bid 1H and now my borderline hand...

JT92
8
QJ973
J64

How would you rate (forgetting pard's hand obviously) 1S, 2D, pass (or others)?

I opted for 2D, thinking I would introduce my S after a likely follow-up like 2H pass pass or X pass 2H.

Well... things didn't go that way and we ended up in 3NT with opponents remaining still. Pard bid 2NT, which I took for a 19-21 HCP, i.e. a better hand than a direct 1NT overcall, I proposed my S and pard rejected my efforts to play a suit contract by bidding a final 3NT. Both opponents handed him the contract by leading and continuing Cs to set up our JT, and kindly discarding a H from Jxxx on the 3rd round of clubs.

Overall we definitely overbid but can't decide who did too much. After the X, was I too ambitious planning bidding twice, or should I just pass 2NT? After an opponent bids Hs, is 2H by pard natural (kind of anti-psychic) or a cue-bid?

Thanks all for your answers!
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#2 User is offline   kuhchung 

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Posted 2015-November-11, 11:09

I would bid 1S first, planning to bid and rebid diamonds. It's normal to bid your suits out of order this way after a takeout double. If you had 5 spades, you would just insist on those, so when you go spades diamonds diamonds, partner won't correct with 3.

I would have overcalled 1H with your partner's hand but I am a giant chicken. Having doubled, I think a 2H rebid should be natural.
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#3 User is offline   Charlie Yu 

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Posted 2015-November-11, 12:01

1S, 2D is gross overbid when you are not forced to bid
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#4 User is offline   WesleyC 

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Posted 2015-November-11, 19:02

I'd bid 1NT with your partner's hand although 1H would also be fine. I wouldn't double.

I swapped to playing t/o doubles at the 1 & 2 level in situations like this a couple of years ago, so double would be automatic here.

If you don't have that available then I agree with kuhchung, bid the spades first (and maybe show diamonds later).
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#5 User is offline   rmnka447 

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Posted 2015-November-11, 23:00

I'd bid 1 also with partner's hand. Change a in that hand to a and double followed by bidding would be right.

After bidding 1 , partner still may be able to bid NT later, if responder passes and partner makes an advancing call.
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#6 User is offline   Zelandakh 

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Posted 2015-November-12, 05:54

On the first hand 1 looks to be automatic. Obviously if the partnership agreement is that this is too strong for an overcall then X; 1NT looks to me to be ridiculous, notwithstanding that it matches to Wesley's style.

For Advancer, I think 1 is clear assuming X would show hearts. If you bid 2 instead I think you have to let it go rather than bid spades the next time as that would suggest a much better hand. I think pass would be way too conservative here.

In the actual case your partner's 2NT advance was a serious error that led directly to the 3NT contract. 2 from your partner instead of 2NT would be natural as 2 is available as the cue. That does not necessarily expose a psychic, it is simply continuing the description of the hand. When you hold a "double then bid" hand type, it is usually imperative that you carry through with that plan. Not doing so often leads to problems, even though you appear to have found a way to obtain a very good score on this one.
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