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second bidding question

#1 User is offline   patroclo 

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Posted 2015-October-13, 06:37

After 1 club- 2 nt (11 points)
3 clubs.


Is it to pass or forcing ?


Is it correct to go to 4 c with 3 cards of club ?
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#2 User is offline   billw55 

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Posted 2015-October-13, 08:00

Given the agreement for 2NT, I don't see how 3 can be forcing. Is opener expected to pass 2NT with ordinary hands like Jxx x KQx AQxxxx?
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#3 User is offline   helene_t 

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Posted 2015-October-13, 08:06

2NT should be very descriptive. 33(43), maybe a 5-card minor or (23)44 is allowed with perfect honour structure but it is not expected. Opener is captain and can usually just place the contract.

Even

1-2NT
3

is to play (OK, responder can correct to 3 with a 4-card diamonds).
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#4 User is offline   rmnka447 

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Posted 2015-October-13, 10:16

3 isn't forcing. Bidding 2 NT advertises that you don't have 4 cards in either major else you'd bid it at the one level.

So opener will often rebid a minor when having a big concern about a major suit. Billw55's example hand is a good one. With a stiff , opener knows that 3 NT will not make unless you can run 8 more tricks off the top after they drive out your stopper.

If opener has game going values, there are other bids beside 3 that opener can make to explore game possibilities. So, unless you have a highly unusual invitational hand, it would be normal to pass.
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#5 User is offline   monikrazy 

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Posted 2015-October-13, 17:07

Quote

Is it to pass or forcing ?

non-forcing

Quote

Is it correct to go to 4 c with 3 cards of club ?

i can't think of many instances where this is correct, we might as well try to play in 3n first
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#6 User is offline   ayebee 

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Posted 2015-October-14, 06:32

Three clubs is clearly to play showing a minimum opener with clubs.

Responder has already fully bid hid hand with 2NT and should not bid again. In particular why bid 3NT when partner by implication doesn't fancy 2NT opposite a balanced 11 count.

It follows that if opener is strong then he could have found a stronger bid - either a new suit or a raise to 3NT.
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#7 User is offline   Caitlynne 

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Posted 2015-October-14, 07:02

3C is intended to play. Why? 2NT was non-forcing and very limited (highly descriptive) in terms of honor values and distribution. (Though it is possible that 2NT might be bid on a hand with only 2 card club support - e.g., when 3-3-5-2 with modest diamonds - it tends to show 3 card club support since it denies a 4+ card major suit.) In contrast, 1C was not limited in terms of strength or distribution. It could have been a minimum opening or very strong balanced hand or a hand with long clubs - either minimum opening values or a real powerhouse. 3C says 1C was bid on minimum values with long clubs (usually 6 cards in length). Given that 3 card club support is expected, it would generally be incorrect for the 2NT responder to do anything other than Pass with 3 card support. The 2NT bidder has already told that story. What is possible is a bid of 3NT when the 3C bid improves one's hand - e.g., Ax, Axx, T9xxx, QJx. If opener has as little as AKxxxx in clubs and major suit king, 9 tricks will be certain.
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#8 User is offline   zillahandp 

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Posted 2015-October-15, 13:02

Good question you made limit bid p makes limit bid but I would think p is saying d you think we can run clubs, have decent suit, 6, are your other stops good, any suit bid from you says can you hel but mplies you can stand 4c, any suit bid from you below 3nt syas yes to your suit p bit what about this one,
Little bird please note
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#9 User is offline   zillahandp 

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Posted 2015-October-15, 13:05

By the way drop the 2nt 11 points so you have no fourcad suits other than clubs
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