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jump shift auction trouble

#1 User is offline   Stephen Tu 

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Posted 2015-September-21, 21:05

IMPS


3♣ = can be artificial, doesn't promise any clubs, can be also GF with 4 exactly hearts or near 2♣ opener spade one suiter.
Responder expected to bid 3♦ with most hands, so 4♣ is showing probably 7+ clubs though not specifically discussed.

You had no way to show an invitational club one suiter directly over 1♠, 3♣ would have been Bergen, so the only option other than 1nt is to GF with 2♣, please note if you disagree with 1nt under these circumstances. Also if you think this hand should bid 5♣ rather than 4♣.

What now?
What's rdbl by responder supposed to show? What's rdbl by opener supposed to show if responder passes?
What's the difference between 5♣ here vs. pass followed by 5♣, without any specific discussion?

What were you supposed to bid if the opening leader hadn't doubled to tell herself what to lead?
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#2 User is offline   mikeh 

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Posted 2015-September-21, 23:44

I use this 3C treatment myself. To me redouble would promise a control, which i lack. Whether 1st or 2nd depends on agreements, but for me it would suggest a stiff. A pass says I have nothing to say, including no heart control....if I cuebid hearts here, that would deny a diamond control. So pass seems about right. If partner continues with 4H, I will bid the slam. Otherwise we play 5C.
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#3 User is offline   MrAce 

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Posted 2015-September-22, 19:39

I'd bid 5♣ previous round having no control in other suits. I'd bid 5♣ now.

If 1♠ -5♣ is natural that's what I'd do.
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