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Forcing bids at the one level? Basic, Simple, Standard Question

Poll: Forcing? (16 member(s) have cast votes)

Is a 1 level rebid by opener Forcing?

  1. Yes (0 votes [0.00%])

    Percentage of vote: 0.00%

  2. No (16 votes [100.00%] - View)

    Percentage of vote: 100.00%

  3. My Granny thinks so, but she predates Goren (0 votes [0.00%])

    Percentage of vote: 0.00%

  4. Maybe (0 votes [0.00%])

    Percentage of vote: 0.00%

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#1 User is offline   JonnyQuest 

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Posted 2015-August-14, 16:21

A very basic, simple question:

In a Standard American system -- let us say 2/1 -- is the following "non-jump" rebid by opener forcing?

1 - (P) - 1 - (P)
1 - (P) - ??

Is 1 forcing?
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#2 User is offline   hrothgar 

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Posted 2015-August-14, 16:39

View PostJonnyQuest, on 2015-August-14, 16:21, said:

A very basic, simple question:

In a Standard American system -- let us say 2/1 -- is the following "non-jump" rebid by opener forcing?

1 - (P) - 1 - (P)
1 - (P) - ??

Is 1 forcing?


Let's just say "If you pass it, you better be right..."
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#3 User is offline   kuhchung 

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Posted 2015-August-14, 17:49

not forcing

an example hand might be xx Qxx KTxxx xxx

if it makes you squeamish to respond on that, add the heart jack
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#4 User is offline   steve2005 

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Posted 2015-August-14, 17:55

View Postkuhchung, on 2015-August-14, 17:49, said:

not forcing

an example hand might be xx Qxx KTxxx xxx

if it makes you squeamish to respond on that, add the heart jack

If partner really really wants to force they have 2.
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#5 User is offline   BillPatch 

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Posted 2015-August-14, 21:45

My understanding is that one over one suit rebid is not forcing but responder should find a rebid with a poor 8 hcp. By the way, the bridge program Jack plays it forcing, a treatment from Dutch Acol. Also, in a recent tournament I was surprised when I jumped to 2 to show a game force on opener's rebid and partner passed, saying one over one rebid by opener was the forcing rebid.
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#6 User is offline   BillPatch 

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Posted 2015-August-14, 22:01

Even when I play with Jack, I try to pass the auction with the proper responder's hand, and we usually do at least as well as if I find a bid. But Jack doesn't complain about my idiosynchroussies and I am simply amused at its.
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#7 User is offline   MrAce 

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Posted 2015-August-15, 02:46

Of course non forcing. We are living in a century that 1 level responses promise almost nothing in regards to hcps.

xxx
Jxxxxx
Qxx
x

I will always respond 1 over 1 and pass 1 rebid.

Make it

xxx
Jxxxxx
xxx
x

and i will respond 1 and pass 2 reverse by pd.

Make it

xxxx
Jxxxxx
xx
x

I would seriously consider raising to 2 unless it is MP.

EDIT: I am sorry, I did not pay attention to which forum I am replying. Change my answer to simply "It is better to play it non forcing"
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#8 User is offline   rmnka447 

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Posted 2015-August-15, 05:05

Opener can have up to about 18 max and make a simple one level rebid in a suit. The upper limit for the opener is less than a hand where you jump in a new suit to force to game.

So if you have a normal 6+ HCP response, it is normal to play it as forcing for 1 round.

If responder has made a less than normal response because of shortness in opener's minor (like Mr. Ace's examples), then it's OK to pass.
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#9 User is offline   BillPatch 

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Posted 2015-August-15, 11:04

View Postrmnka447, on 2015-August-15, 05:05, said:

Opener can have up to about 18 max and make a simple one level rebid in a suit. The upper limit for the opener is less than a hand where you jump in a new suit to force to game.

So if you have a normal 6+ HCP response, it is normal to play it as forcing for 1 round.

If responder has made a less than normal response because of shortness in opener's minor (like Mr. Ace's examples), then it's OK to pass.

If we accept that "about 18 max", it should be OK to pass with any hand that revalues to 6 or a poor 7, regardless of HCPs, since normally 25 "points" are required for game.
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