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Responder to 2NT opening Unusual distribution

#1 User is offline   sukatglf 

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Posted 2015-July-23, 12:45

Partner, South, opens 2N showing 20-21 HCP. West passes. As North, you hold (S,H,D,C) X, AJ10X, AJ, 10xxxxx. Partnership plays transfers (3S forces 4C bid) and Stayman. With 29-30 HCP points, slam try depends on fit. Do you bid 3C, Stayman, first, and then shift to clubs, or transfer to clubs and then show hearts?
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#2 User is offline   ggwhiz 

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Posted 2015-July-23, 13:34

stayman first. Transfer to clubs and bid hearts is a cue not a suit in my partnership.
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#3 User is offline   BillPatch 

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Posted 2015-July-23, 14:36

First of all I count my hand. 10 hcp + partner's 20-21 = 30-31. Second I note whether we are in matchpoints or IMPs. At matchpoints rejected slam try at 5 often will yield a 0 even if it makes exactly 11 tricks, so I'll start with Stayman. If I find the hearts, I'll probably play in 6. (Asking for A's or keys if system permits.) Otherwise, I will sign off at 3NT.

Maybe at IMPS I would try the same. Since I have more than my share of A's for my points I doubt partner will cooperate with must suitabile hands if I invite(presumably with a raise to game after transferring to ).
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#4 User is offline   eagles123 

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Posted 2015-July-23, 15:00

i can't imagine not bidding a slam here, obviously hearts if partner shows them but if he doesn't then there's no way i'm stopping in 3n with such a powerful hand
"definitely that's what I like to play when I'm playing standard - I want to be able to bid diamonds because bidding good suits is important in bridge" - Meckstroth's opinion on weak 2 diamond
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#5 User is offline   BillPatch 

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Posted 2015-July-23, 16:14

Since we have 6 cards the remaining three seats have a mean of 2 1/3 clubs, a median and mode of 2. If partner has 2 clubs we can hold our club losers to one only if he specifically has the AK and the suit splits 3-2, the AQ, the club finesse works and they split 3-2, or KQ and the J falls doubleton. Roughly one third of the time the two clubs are this good slam has no play because the opponents can cash the A, anther 40% of the 6-2 club slam splits that have ply fail due to off-side finesse(s). For the 60% of the time that the 2NT has 2 clubs, the slam will fail at least 5 of 6 time. Counting only the eight card fits approx. 50% of club slams fail, and there are enough high cards outstanding that substantially less than 100% of the 9+ fits fail in slam. Since a club slam is less than 50% and a 3NT game is certain. 6 is normally a bad bet.
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#6 User is offline   SteveMoe 

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Posted 2015-July-23, 20:26

Stayman then regardless of partner's answer. New suit is natural and forcing (discard the notion that it denies a fit in partner's major). The key issue is whether partner has wasted values in . Slam is very possible opposite Axxx Kx KQT AKxx or Kx KQxx KQxx AKx or Kx KQx KQxx AKxx type hands.
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