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What am I supposed to think?

#1 User is offline   Bbradley62 

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Posted 2015-February-26, 11:47

If the description of 2 is accurate, why did North pass over 1?

PS: I wouldn't bid 2 with a suit that was only "biddable".

This post has been edited by Bbradley62: 2015-February-26, 13:12

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#2 User is online   johnu 

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Posted 2015-February-26, 12:26

You didn't give North's hand, but it's almost certain North has a doubleton or less in diamonds. Running from partner's suit takes precedence over any other description, even it means bidding a 3 card suit at times.
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#3 User is offline   iandayre 

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Posted 2015-February-26, 15:07

This is one of those descriptions that is inaccurate by definition, since N would have made a negative double or bid the suit on the first round with that holding.

I need some sort of catch phrase or code word which means "the descriptions are full of contradictions and impossibilities, there needs to be a major project to sift through them and improve them". I am getting tired of having to type it out over and over.
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#4 User is offline   lycier 

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Posted 2015-February-26, 18:46

2 is a puzzling bidding,after opp's 1,north keep silent,after pd'2,north suddently bid 2,difficult to understand its illogical bidding.
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#5 User is offline   Bbradley62 

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Posted 2015-February-27, 18:31

So, maybe North intended to show control of spades, looking for 3N, but got the explanation wrong? Dunno.

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