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After FSF

#1 User is offline   Bbradley62 

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Posted 2014-November-05, 19:00


The explanation of 5 includes "no AQ". What was I supposed to bid over 3, and what would that bid have shown? Or, was I supposed to bid something other than 2?
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#2 User is offline   mike777 

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Posted 2014-November-05, 23:00

after the reverse why not start with a gf 3c?

with a weak hand you can rebid 2s or 2nt.
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#3 User is offline   mcphee 

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Posted 2014-November-06, 02:39

Not knowing how to make the best F bid created the problem. You had a tremendous hand after the reverse and slam has to be good. A rebid of 3C here is GF, a rebid of 2S shows 5+ S and is forcing one round. 2NT would show less than 5S and usually less than 8 HCP suggesting partner retreat to C if minimum for the reverse. Alternative choice is to play 2H was the lebensohl usually weak hand, I think this alternate method is superior.

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#4 User is offline   1eyedjack 

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Posted 2014-November-06, 07:39

Has anyone actually checked that 3C is treated by GIB as forcing? I mean, it is a modern treatment (it was not always thus) and it makes sense, but that is not the same as GIB necessarily following that doctrine. It may well do, just raising the point to shoot it down, really.
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#5 User is offline   iandayre 

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Posted 2014-November-06, 11:56

GIB does play Lebensohl over reverses, so 3C is forcing over 2D. I have never seen it pass such a bid.

Playing a rebid of responder's suit as forcing, there is no need for an artificial 4SF after a reverse. I like the method mcphee describes, but GIB does not play it so I would just set trump with 3C and work on finding out if you belong at the 6 or 7 level.

And yes this method is "modern" in the sense that it is post-Goren, but it has been standard in 2/1 back to the days of Walsh. Dick Walsh had already moved to Europe when I began playing but I played against his ex-wife Rhoda on many occasions.
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