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Partner bids IJS - pass or punt?

#1 User is offline   mgoetze 

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Posted 2014-September-07, 07:57



Partner's 3 shows exactly invitational values with a decent 6-card club suit. Your bid?
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#2 User is offline   broze 

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Posted 2014-September-07, 11:08

Ugh, tough. But I pass. Game probably at best on a finesse and could well be off two.
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#3 User is offline   kenrexford 

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Posted 2014-September-07, 11:43

View Postbroze, on 2014-September-07, 11:08, said:

Ugh, tough. But I pass. Game probably at best on a finesse and could well be off two.

Excellent! Our system works. I pass. Game is probably at best on a finesse and partner could well just make.
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#4 User is offline   gszes 

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Posted 2014-September-07, 12:15

mp pass imps 3d looking for vul game
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#5 User is offline   mgoetze 

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Posted 2014-September-07, 17:51

View Postgszes, on 2014-September-07, 12:15, said:

imps 3d looking for vul game

The question is whether it is feasible for any such bid to not show a strong hand. Say it goes 1-3; 3-3; 4. Is 4 forcing? Does it show slam interest? If anyone has good agreements about such sequences I would love to hear them. But absent such agreements I fear such bidding is risky.
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#6 User is offline   Zelandakh 

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Posted 2014-September-07, 19:37

View Postmgoetze, on 2014-September-07, 17:51, said:

The question is whether it is feasible for any such bid to not show a strong hand. Say it goes 1-3; 3-3; 4. Is 4 forcing? Does it show slam interest? If anyone has good agreements about such sequences I would love to hear them. But absent such agreements I fear such bidding is risky.

Use the same rules as for the sequence 1 - 1; 3 - 3; 3 - 4. I think it should be forcing because you have 3 available as a 3NT probe.
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#7 User is offline   mgoetze 

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Posted 2014-September-07, 19:44

View PostZelandakh, on 2014-September-07, 19:37, said:

Use the same rules as for the sequence 1 - 1; 3 - 3; 3 - 4. I think it should be forcing because you have 3 available as a 3NT probe.

Well, if you look at the hand in the OP, I pretty much never want to be in 3NT... but I want to be in 5 if responder has xxx.

So is 1-1; 3-3; 3-3; 3NT-4 to play?

If not then I have to reject gszes's answer. ;)
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#8 User is offline   karlson 

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Posted 2014-September-08, 02:35

I would just pass at any scoring.
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#9 User is offline   whereagles 

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Posted 2014-September-08, 08:47

A prototype hand for responder would be something like

?xx
?x
?x
AKJTxx

with "?" an honor. It's easy to see game is going to require a considerable amount of luck regardless of what "?" is.

Pass under normal circumstances, but If you need to push it, try 3 (intending to stick to 3NT if pard bids it or drive to 5 otherwise).
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#10 User is offline   mgoetze 

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Posted 2014-September-08, 09:26

View Postwhereagles, on 2014-September-08, 08:47, said:

It's easy to see game is going to require a considerable amount of luck regardless of what "?" is.

Well...

xxx
xx
Ax
AKJTxx
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#11 User is offline   whereagles 

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Posted 2014-September-08, 11:01

That is a game force. I implicitly assumed that "?" does not make the hand strong enough for that (as e.g. spade or diamond ace would).
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#12 User is offline   PhilKing 

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Posted 2014-September-08, 11:32

View Postmgoetze, on 2014-September-07, 17:51, said:

The question is whether it is feasible for any such bid to not show a strong hand. Say it goes 1-3; 3-3; 4. Is 4 forcing? Does it show slam interest? If anyone has good agreements about such sequences I would love to hear them. But absent such agreements I fear such bidding is risky.


I have a meta rule that in any auction where partner bids 3m (first instance) and we exploring for 3NT, the ONLY forcing minor suit option is the direct raise. So cue bidding opponents suit or bidding a new suit before bidding four of partner's minor is non-forcing. The direct raise is a slam try.

Having said that, I would just pass here, since my partners never have the perfect hand.
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