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Slam bidding

#1 User is offline   deborahh 

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Posted 2014-August-28, 03:42


This hand makes 6 or 6, but how to get there with SAYC or 2/1? In a recent auction, the only pair to bid was playing precision. There was competition in spades, but even without, what's the best way to find the fit and keep bidding open? South (dealer) opens 1.
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#2 User is offline   Zelandakh 

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Posted 2014-August-28, 03:54

1 - 1; 3 - 4; 4NT - 5; 6 springs to mind, especially if a 4 rebid would show a void. It depends a little bit on which agreements are in play.
(-: Zel :-)

Happy New Year everyone!
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#3 User is offline   phoenix214 

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Posted 2014-August-28, 06:49

After 1-1, it depends on opener to on how he evaluates his hand. For him, it is easy to see that if partner has Kxxxx in hearts, and one more useful honor, then game is definitely on. Also, when he tries to imagine what he needs to have for slam, it seems to be enough with xxx;KQxxx;xxx;Ax(clubs splinting 3-2). Since he wants to force game, and make a slam try, he should do this per system agreements(showing a diamond shortness). Now responder seeing his hand, which should be good(5 controls and a double fit+no wasted values in diamonds) can either make a move towards slam.
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#4 User is offline   the_clown 

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Posted 2014-August-28, 06:51

If you are playing minisplinters you will get there after 1-1-3. But again if you change the North hand to xx KQ109x xxx A10x you will also bid 6 and will need a good guess in clubs.

After 1-1-3 I dont think North is worth a cuebid (though its not far away) and I would just bid 4
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#5 User is offline   Cyberyeti 

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Posted 2014-August-28, 08:14

View Postthe_clown, on 2014-August-28, 06:51, said:

If you are playing minisplinters you will get there after 1-1-3. But again if you change the North hand to xx KQ109x xxx A10x you will also bid 6 and will need a good guess in clubs.

After 1-1-3 I dont think North is worth a cuebid (though its not far away) and I would just bid 4


Whether you're worth a cue may depend on what 3N means, if you can make a frivolous try with 4 I'd do so as it hits gold opposite this hand type but not opposite the big flat hand. That said, is Axx, Axxx, Ax, KQJx unfeasible where you have to bid the slam in clubs, and you're not going to have any chance of doing this if you do anything other than bid 4.
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#6 User is offline   Lovera 

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Posted 2014-September-20, 13:28

I think that N&S see the same thing : before N (double fit) after S bidding 1 - 1 then 3 (..) that probably is more easy to play.
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#7 User is offline   mike777 

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Posted 2014-September-20, 14:04

ya 3d after 1h gets you to slam.
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#8 User is offline   kgr 

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Posted 2014-September-21, 02:25

Difficult hand in my system:
(We start 1-1 T-Walsh)
- 3=splinter, 12-14 or 18-19 => Too strong for the mini-splinter, not strong enough for the higher range; (How do others play mini-splinter?)
- 4=4c, good 6c, 17+ => The hand is not really good enough for 4
- 3=Invite, responder can ask shortness with 3 => The hand is a bit too good for an invite.
I think it would go:
1-1
4-5
6-AP
(Maybe we should lower our system requirements for 4)
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