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Is this bid forcing?

#1 User is offline   movingon 

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Posted 2014-July-15, 12:49

The bidding goes

1 club Pass 2 hearts Pass
2 spades....

Is the 2 spade bid forcing?

(edited to indicate that the 2 heart bid is preemptive...)
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#2 User is offline   ArtK78 

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Posted 2014-July-15, 13:36

I am going to assume that 2 was weak, otherwise the question makes no sense.

2 should be forcing. With a weak hand, opener would have no reason to bid a new suit unless he was wildly distributional, and I would not devise a system that caters to that hand. On the other hand, if opener has a very strong hand, he wants to search for the best game even opposite a weak hand with a long suit.


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#3 User is offline   billw55 

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Posted 2014-July-15, 13:39

If 2 is a strong bid, then it should be game forcing and hence all bids below game, including 2, are forcing.

If 2 is weak, then I am not sure. 2 seems like it does not exist in this auction. Perhaps partner has a strong 6-5? At the table I would follow the principle: when in doubt, it's forcing.
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#4 User is offline   fromageGB 

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Posted 2014-July-15, 16:07

Yes
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#5 User is offline   Siegmund 

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Posted 2014-July-15, 18:47

Yes. Absent discussion I assume it means whatever a 2S response to a weak two means (except that it's very unlikely to be leading to a 5-3 fit.)
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#6 User is offline   neilkaz 

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Posted 2014-July-15, 21:34

Forcing for me and showing a very good hand.
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#7 User is offline   aguahombre 

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Posted 2014-July-15, 22:09

Different people seem to define the nature of the preemptive 2H bid differently. In our style, with 2H showing 6 hearts and LESS than the values for a 1H response, 2S would be forcing but something designed to torture partner and accomplish nothing. In other words, it wouldn't exist.
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#8 User is offline   bluechip10 

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Posted 2014-July-16, 09:32

View Postmovingon, on 2014-July-15, 12:49, said:

The bidding goes

1 club Pass 2 hearts Pass
2 spades....

Is the 2 spade bid forcing?

(edited to indicate that the 2 heart bid is preemptive...)


I play it forcing. Really no different than the RONF rule for opening weak 2 bids I've been using. Obviously, the 2sp bid denies support (singleton or void in ). Responder will either support spades with 3 or more or rebid her suit. A new suit bid by responder, I believe requires partnership agreement.
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#9 User is offline   kenrexford 

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Posted 2014-July-16, 09:45

View Postbluechip10, on 2014-July-16, 09:32, said:

Obviously, the 2sp bid denies support (singleton or void in ).



AKJx AQx x Axxxx opposite

Qxx Kxxxxx xxx x


With this hand as Opener, a natural and forcing 2 seems to make perfect sense. A splinter would have focused Responder on the potential club Queen. A spade bid and then heart slam move establishes the pattern (short diamonds) and focuses the spade suit as the source of need.



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#10 User is offline   atlantajon 

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Posted 2014-July-16, 13:52

View Postmovingon, on 2014-July-15, 12:49, said:

The bidding goes

1 club Pass 2 hearts Pass
2 spades....

Is the 2 spade bid forcing?

(edited to indicate that the 2 heart bid is preemptive...)


Well it is clearly shape showing. 2 is a weak hand that is of little or no value unless played in hearts. So, with that in mind, the only reason to find a different strain would be extreme shape by opener. Therefore it is not forcing... if the responder likes better than he can pass. The opener had other options to show a strong 2 suited hand. a jump-reverse would be the 2 suited 19+ hand. 1 ... 2... 3... is a game going call. 2 is likely a 6-5 hand with 0 . For those that think it is a splinter... Slam opposite a weak 2 heart response is not very reasonable.
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#11 User is offline   ArtK78 

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Posted 2014-July-16, 14:07

View Postatlantajon, on 2014-July-16, 13:52, said:

Well it is clearly shape showing. 2 is a weak hand that is of little or no value unless played in hearts. So, with that in mind, the only reason to find a different strain would be extreme shape by opener. Therefore it is not forcing... if the responder likes better than he can pass. The opener had other options to show a strong 2 suited hand. a jump-reverse would be the 2 suited 19+ hand. 1 ... 2... 3... is a game going call. 2 is likely a 6-5 hand with 0 . For those that think it is a splinter... Slam opposite a weak 2 heart response is not very reasonable.

Suppose the 5 in your 6-5 hand is hearts. Now is slam reasonable? For example, suppose you pick up:
Kx AJxxx --- AKxxxx

You open 1 and partner bids 2 weak. Do you think you can make a slam?
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#12 User is offline   ggwhiz 

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Posted 2014-July-16, 15:05

View PostArtK78, on 2014-July-16, 14:07, said:

Suppose the 5 in your 6-5 hand is hearts. Now is slam reasonable? For example, suppose you pick up:
Kx AJxxx --- AKxxxx

You open 1 and partner bids 2 weak. Do you think you can make a slam?


I bid 6 a long time ago on those cards. 2 is a forcing game try in something other than hearts.
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#13 User is offline   ArtK78 

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Posted 2014-July-16, 15:20

View Postggwhiz, on 2014-July-16, 15:05, said:

I bid 6 a long time ago on those cards. 2 is a forcing game try in something other than hearts.

I did not mean to imply that I would bid 2 on these cards - I was merely trying to explain that making a slam opposite a weak jump shift is not necessarily unreasonable.
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#14 User is offline   PhilKing 

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Posted 2014-July-16, 17:28

View PostArtK78, on 2014-July-16, 14:07, said:

Suppose the 5 in your 6-5 hand is hearts. Now is slam reasonable? For example, suppose you pick up:
Kx AJxxx --- AKxxxx

You open 1 and partner bids 2 weak. Do you think you can make a slam?


You know there is a 0.001% chance that the oppo have both passed, right?
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#15 User is offline   operator 

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Posted 2014-July-17, 21:23

View Postmovingon, on 2014-July-15, 12:49, said:

The bidding goes

1 club Pass 2 hearts Pass
2 spades....

Is the 2 spade bid forcing?

(edited to indicate that the 2 heart bid is preemptive...)


No matter what 2H is, 2S is (or should be) 100% forcing...
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#16 User is offline   the hog 

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Posted 2014-July-17, 23:46

Agree with 99% of the posters. 2S is clearly forcing and shows a really good hand.
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#17 User is offline   mcphee 

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Posted 2014-July-18, 02:44

How can it make any sense for it to be NF?
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#18 User is offline   helene_t 

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Posted 2014-July-18, 02:51

View Postmcphee, on 2014-July-18, 02:44, said:

How can it make any sense for it to be NF?

With a 5026 it would be nice to able to make a nonforcing 2. You will rarely be strong enough to force to game and maybe you should just pass 2 if you have no interest in game. But you could have a hand with which you want to be in 4 or 5 if p has anything useful at all.

Probably 2 should be forcing, though, and in any case it obviously is forcing without agreements to the contrary.
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#19 User is offline   BruceZhu 

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Posted 2014-July-18, 12:29

2should be forcing, because opener should have a strong hand and a heart singleton/void to keep the bidding alive outside of a heart contract.If 2was strong, it would definately be forcing.
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#20 User is offline   whereagles 

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Posted 2014-July-18, 12:50

I like that

1x 1y
1z

is limited to 17 H. This puts a narrow range into

1x 1y
2z

i.e. 18-21 or thereabouts.
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