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Reverse Flannery?

#1 User is offline   P_Marlowe 

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Posted 2014-July-07, 01:17

Hi,

I was suggesting to my partner to add a Reverse Flannery Style Response to our Agreement Set.

My impression was, that this is done by using a 2D jump response to a 1C opening.
If I search the net i only find references, that use a 2H jump shift.

A valid question is of course, what to do with 5H / 4S 5-8HCP after a 1D opening,
using 2H would solve this.

With kind regards
Marlowe
With kind regards
Uwe Gebhardt (P_Marlowe)
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#2 User is offline   P_Marlowe 

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Posted 2014-July-07, 01:42

maybe should have gone to the 2nd page of Google results

http://www.google.de...wdLYcmA&cad=rja


http://www.bridgemat...r-is-where.html
With kind regards
Uwe Gebhardt (P_Marlowe)
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#3 User is offline   the_clown 

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Posted 2014-July-07, 04:04

Double post
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#4 User is offline   the_clown 

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Posted 2014-July-07, 15:03

View Postthe_clown, on 2014-July-07, 04:04, said:

With 1 partner I play

1-2 - club raise too weak for inverted, but too strong for a preemptive 3.
1-2 - 54 5-8
1-2 -54 9-11

This works just fine.

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#5 User is offline   jallerton 

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Posted 2014-July-07, 16:02

I suggest bidding your longest suit at the lowest level.

Why on earth would you want to waste a 2 response on showing a hand type where the best contract will often be 2 or 1NT, or a 2 response on showing a hand type where the best contract will often be 2, 1NT or 2?
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#6 User is offline   mike777 

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Posted 2014-July-07, 17:37

View PostP_Marlowe, on 2014-July-07, 01:17, said:

Hi,

I was suggesting to my partner to add a Reverse Flannery Style Response to our Agreement Set.

My impression was, that this is done by using a 2D jump response to a 1C opening.
If I search the net i only find references, that use a 2H jump shift.

A valid question is of course, what to do with 5H / 4S 5-8HCP after a 1D opening,
using 2H would solve this.

With kind regards
Marlowe


Keep in mind reverse flannery is 5s and 4h not 5h and 4s.

1minor=2h is fine with a bit less than invite hands. with less(5-7) you just start with 1s and you may lose the h suit or the opp will often bid.

fwiw I play 1c=2d as gf in clubs and 1minor=2s as invite in bidminor
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#7 User is offline   mike777 

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Posted 2014-July-07, 20:53

reverse flannery guys is not 5h and 4s
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#8 User is offline   SteveMoe 

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Posted 2014-July-07, 21:03

Something else to consider - it can be useful to have 1-1-1N-2 be a game force, leaving room for cue bidding (weak meaning is now filled by the jump to 2). (2[sp} sets [sp]. 2N suggests 2=3 and 3 other is a cue bid for s. Can also play opener's 2N as a length ask for allowing 55 too). This unburdens whatever version of NMF you use without losing a step. (Note similarity to 1m-1-1N-2)
Sure, YlrennlaF can be useful and powerful if you rethink other auctions you have freed by you choice.

Full disclosure - I play this in precision over 1 nebulous and it works well. 2 = 7-10 and 2=11-12 (8 losers). Adjust for 2/1 accordingly....
Had some old notes that this is what MR did in their client version of Precison...
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#9 User is offline   nigel_k 

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Posted 2014-July-08, 01:08

Reverse Flannery is 5 and 4 and. IMO it should be just under GF strength, around 8-11 HCP. These are the problem hands because, if weaker, you just respond 1 and pass if partner rebids their suit.
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#10 User is offline   P_Marlowe 

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Posted 2014-July-08, 01:55

View Postmike777, on 2014-July-07, 20:53, said:

reverse flannery guys is not 5h and 4s

Yes, I misremembered this part, ... the 5S / 4H hands are not the problem for us.

What we are looking for is, if you employ Walsh Style Rebids by opener, and bypass
1S to show a bal. hand, you may loose the 44 fit in spades.

With kind regards
Marlowe
With kind regards
Uwe Gebhardt (P_Marlowe)
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#11 User is offline   Trinidad 

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Posted 2014-July-08, 05:46

View Postjallerton, on 2014-July-07, 16:02, said:

I suggest bidding your longest suit at the lowest level.

Why on earth would you want to waste a 2 response on showing a hand type where the best contract will often be 2 or 1NT, or a 2 response on showing a hand type where the best contract will often be 2, 1NT or 2?

The typical case is 1-1; 2. Opener had basically shown 5-4 in the minors (could be 4-4). Responder will have to show preference for a minor and that is where we will play.

After 1-2, responder has shown 5-4 in the majors. Now opener has to give preference and that is where we will play. That is an advantage at MPs.

In addition, if opener has somewhat of a fit, he can decide immediately whether he wants to play in a partscore or in game: He knows immediately about the hearts and about the fifth spade. He does not need to leak information and tell the opponents why he thinks game is playable. He could bid 4M on a balanced 18-19, or on distributional hands. That is an advantage at IMPs.

Whether it is worth to give up the 2M responses is another question (that depends on the alternative use for these bids), but knowing about the 5-4 majors at once (and knowing that 1 denies 4 hearts) is useful information.

Rik
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#12 User is offline   mike777 

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Posted 2014-July-08, 09:26

View PostP_Marlowe, on 2014-July-08, 01:55, said:

Yes, I misremembered this part, ... the 5S / 4H hands are not the problem for us.

What we are looking for is, if you employ Walsh Style Rebids by opener, and bypass
1S to show a bal. hand, you may loose the 44 fit in spades.

With kind regards
Marlowe


ahh ok

basically we don't by pass 1s after pard responds 1h even playing walsh. I suppose if you do choose to then missing 4-4 spade fit on say 8-11(less than inv) range hands is a hole you are willing to live with.

In other words those that play that and I don't, do not mine playing in 1nt and missing a 4-4 spade fit with less than inv hand types.
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#13 User is offline   TylerE 

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Posted 2014-July-08, 11:24

View Postjallerton, on 2014-July-07, 16:02, said:

I suggest bidding your longest suit at the lowest level.

Why on earth would you want to waste a 2 response on showing a hand type where the best contract will often be 2 or 1NT, or a 2 response on showing a hand type where the best contract will often be 2, 1NT or 2?


Because how do you handle the auction 1-1-2 with 5-4-(3-1/2-2) shape? You can't bid 2 (4SF), and passing risks playing in a 6 or even 5 card "fit".

FWIW, I actually play 2-way reverse flannery over a precision 1 with one partner.

1-2 is 5-4-x-x weak, and 1-2 is the same but with invitational values opposite an 11-15 hand.
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#14 User is offline   johnworf 

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Posted 2020-December-05, 18:47

View PostP_Marlowe, on 2014-July-07, 01:17, said:

Hi,

I was suggesting to my partner to add a Reverse Flannery Style Response to our Agreement Set.

My impression was, that this is done by using a 2D jump response to a 1C opening.
If I search the net i only find references, that use a 2H jump shift.

A valid question is of course, what to do with 5H / 4S 5-8HCP after a 1D opening,
using 2H would solve this.

With kind regards
Marlowe

Here is a version I play with my partner...
https://www.stellar-...verse-flannery/
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