I'm puzzled as to how a hand that passes 1NT (and is therefore not even strong enough to invite game) can force to game in the next round of bidding. (Edit: I think North is strong enough to bid Stayman in the first place.) (Second edit: North's choosing to force to game is even more strange given that GIB's system notes indicate that South cannot have both 17HCP and 5 spades; "1NT: balanced 15-17 HCP, may have a 5-card major (GIB treats 17 with 5-card major as 18)."
And, since the explanation is "forcing to 3N", would North really pass a 3N bid by South?
This post has been edited by Bbradley62: 2014-April-02, 11:50