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How to calculate the distributive strength of the hand? Dstributive strength

#41 User is offline   hrothgar 

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Posted 2014-April-22, 14:39

View Postgergana85, on 2014-April-22, 00:49, said:

And ask how this formula (Lmax = 19 – S1,2) is causing too much trouble?


I doubt that the formula is causing anyone much trouble.

The lack of interest probably reflects the fact that the forums spent a better part of a year trying to explain why Zar Points were badly flawed and no one wants to revisit the same discussions.

If you're genuinely interested, i recommend reading the (extensive) discussion of Zar points and consider some of the comments there (especially the ones involving how best to measure the accuracy of a hand evaluation method)
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#42 User is offline   Lurpoa 

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  Posted 2014-April-22, 23:12

View Postgergana85, on 2014-March-04, 07:46, said:

This material aims to identify the factors...

DEPENDENCY OF THE MAXIMUM NUMBER OF LOSERS ON THE DISTRIBUTION




VERY GOOD ARTICLE ! !H!H!H

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They do that with every newcomer.
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#43 User is offline   gergana85 

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Posted 2014-April-24, 07:59

View Posthrothgar, on 2014-April-22, 14:39, said:

The lack of interest probably reflects the fact that the forums spent a better part of a year trying to explain why Zar Points were badly flawed and no one wants to revisit the same discussions.

1. I was not involved in the discussion of the Zar Points method and it had no effect on me.
2. I think that Zar Points method is incorrect and it is easy to demonstrate. See the article by Mr Petkov (http://www.bridgeguy...f/ZarPoints.pdf):

- In the Mr. Petkov’s formula is included the sum of the two longest suits. This is true, but why he did it, the author does not say. Perhaps the experience and the feeling are helped him. No evidence;
- Mr. Petkov completely frivolous includes in his formula the sum of the difference between the longest and shortest suits. To prove his point, he using some strange mathematical formula that does not even deserve a comment. And again, no evidence. I'll just say that if I use his logic, I can to prove that the difference between the longest and shortest suits can be replaced by the difference of any other two suits. For example let a, b, c and d are the lengths of the suits in the hand. I argue that instead of (a-d), may be included (b-d), as (b-a) + (a-c) + (c-d) = (b-d). Or (a-b), because (a-c) + (c-d) + (d-b) = (a-b). These examples show that the purpose was not to find the truth, but to get a "beautiful" formula.

3. Unlike Mr. Petkov, I do not propose a model to determine the general strength of the hand. I only argue that the distribution strength of the hand depends on the sum of the two longest suits. I also show that in rare cases (wild distributions) the three longest suits affect on the distributive strength of the hand. Based on this evidence I do some conclusions. Nothing more.
If you would like more information email me at: bogev53@abv.bg
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#44 User is offline   gergana85 

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Posted 2014-April-24, 08:24

View PostLurpoa, on 2014-April-22, 23:12, said:

VERY GOOD ARTICLE ! !H!H!H

Thanks.
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#45 User is offline   matmat 

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Posted 2014-April-24, 08:32

I might be able to prove that the max number of losers in a hand is 13, but it is tough.
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#46 User is offline   matmat 

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Posted 2014-April-24, 08:48

View Postgergana85, on 2014-April-10, 05:21, said:

You are mistaken. The reason is that you mix (probably unintentionally) terms Maximum number of losers (Lmax) and Real number of losers (Lreal) in the hand. For each distribution, Lmax is constant and does not change. At the same time the Lreal can be changed. It should be emphasized that Lreal is equal to Lmax minus the number of winning honors. In other words Lmax characterizes the distribution strength of the hand until Lreal shows general strength of the hand. Lreal may be equal to or less than Lmax.



Lreal = 13 - (tricks quitted my way) = tricks quitted their way.
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#47 User is offline   mycroft 

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Posted 2014-April-24, 09:35

Wow, you're better than I am matmat - Lreal = 13 - (tricks quitted my way) + 1 for the misguess + 1 for bad play - 1 for so bad play that the defence misdefended on the "that can't be right" ticket...
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#48 User is offline   hrothgar 

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Posted 2014-April-24, 10:40

View Postgergana85, on 2014-April-24, 07:59, said:

3. Unlike Mr. Petkov, I do not propose a model to determine the general strength of the hand. I only argue that the distribution strength of the hand depends on the sum of the two longest suits. I also show that in rare cases (wild distributions) the three longest suits affect on the distributive strength of the hand. Based on this evidence I do some conclusions. Nothing more.
If you would like more information email me at: bogev53@abv.bg


I couldn't care less whether your method is related to Zar Points.

I referenced that discussion thread because there are some good postings that describe how one might validate a claim that "the distribution strength of the hand depends on the sum of the two longest suits".
Alderaan delenda est
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#49 User is offline   manudude03 

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Posted 2014-April-25, 03:17

Am I the only one who thinks that it almost irrelevant that the Maths makes sense? Putting all the parts of the equation together, you get (with a little simplifying):
Lmax = 19 – S1 - S2 – ((|10 – S1| - (10 – S1)) - (|3 – S2| - (S2 - 3)) - (|3 – S3| - (3 – S3))/2

The good players will already know what their hand is worth as far as distribution goes, and the vast majority of the rest would not be willing to learn that, let alone apply it. While it does seem to work, it all seems accurate in the limited distributions I did check it with, it all seems pretty academic.
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#50 User is offline   gergana85 

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Posted 2014-April-25, 03:23

View Postmatmat, on 2014-April-24, 08:32, said:

I might be able to prove that the max number of losers in a hand is 13, but it is tough.

It is not trouble. Do not even needs to prove. Take this hand:

xxxx
xxx
xxx
xxx

How many losers in it? Obviously they are thirteen. But the question is another, and that is that each distribution has its own maximum number of losers and it varies from zero (for hand AKQJ1098765432- void-void-void) to 13 (for hand xxxx- xxx-xxx-xxx).
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#51 User is offline   gwnn 

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Posted 2014-April-25, 03:42

edit: never mind
... and I can prove it with my usual, flawless logic.
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#52 User is offline   MrAce 

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Posted 2014-April-25, 04:16

Who let the dogs out ?! Posted Image
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#53 User is offline   gergana85 

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Posted 2014-April-25, 04:43

View Postmatmat, on 2014-April-24, 08:48, said:

Lreal = 13 - (tricks quitted my way) = tricks quitted their way.


Leaving aside the humor, the error is obvious. You accept that any distribution is characterized by a constant number maximum number of losers (Lmax) and that it is equal to thirteen (Lmax = 13). But this is not true. Take the distribution:

J1098765432
432
void
void

Let us assume that trump is SP. What is the maximum number of losers that you can lose without getting any help from your partner? The answer is six - three spades and three hearts. This hand cannot lose more than 6 tricks (Lmax), i.e. it will always win seven tricks.
Yes, in some cases, it may lose a less than 6 tricks (Lreal), but this does not depend on the distribution. This depends by other factors (eg location of the spade honors and heart honors in the other hands).
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#54 User is offline   gergana85 

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Posted 2014-April-25, 04:46

View Postmatmat, on 2014-April-24, 08:48, said:

Lreal = 13 - (tricks quitted my way) = tricks quitted their way.

sorry double post
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#55 User is offline   gwnn 

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Posted 2014-April-25, 04:56

gergana85, if I see correctly, Lmax is 9 for 5530, right? P1, P2, P3 are all 0 for this distribution. Yet

xxxxx
xxxxx
xxx
-

Can have as much as 13 losers. LHO has AKQJT AKQJT AKQ -, draws trumps, and claims. Also for xxxx xxx xxx xxx you said that the real number of losers is 13 but the maximum is 12 (again, P1, P2, P3 are all 0 if I see it correctly). So the maximum number of losers is not given by your formula.

The most balanced distribution I can think of that does not have a maximum number of losers=13 is 7222, since you will make at least one of your long suit, if that suit will be trump (Lmax=9 according to your formula, actual maximum losers=12 according to me - LHO has AKQJT9 AK AK AKx, draws trumps and plays AK AK AK).

What exactly do you mean by maximum number of losers, if it is not what we normally mean by maximum and losers? Could you define these terms so that we can understand what your formulas refer to?

edit: changed Lmax=9 because 7222 has P2=1 apparently.

This post has been edited by gwnn: 2014-April-25, 05:00

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#56 User is offline   gergana85 

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Posted 2014-April-25, 05:31

View Posthrothgar, on 2014-April-24, 10:40, said:

I referenced that discussion thread because there are some good postings that describe how one might validate a claim that "the distribution strength of the hand depends on the sum of the two longest suits".


This can now be considered proven by me. This was supposed. However, the evidence was not there. Until now ... :rolleyes:
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#57 User is offline   Trinidad 

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Posted 2014-April-25, 10:59

View Postgergana85, on 2014-April-25, 05:31, said:

This can now be considered proven by me.

I need to remember that phrase for future discussions...

Rik
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#58 User is offline   MrAce 

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Posted 2014-April-25, 12:27

View PostTrinidad, on 2014-April-25, 10:59, said:

I need to remember that phrase for future discussions...

Rik


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#59 User is offline   gergana85 

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Posted 2014-April-29, 01:02

Trinidad, MrAce said:

This can now be considered proven by me. This was supposed. However, the evidence was not there. Until now ... :rolleyes:

Somewhere I was told that I not responsible for those which cannot to calculate :huh: . Again, there are formulas - check them. For now I give only an example. Let's look at the distribution:

ххххххх
хх
хх
хх

For this distribution the sum of the two longest suits S1,2 is equal to 9.
According to the article:

P1 = (|10 – S1| – (10 – S1))/2 = (|10 – 7| – (10 – 7))/2 = (3 – (3))/2 = (3 – 3)/2 = 0/2 = 0
P2 = (|3 – S2| - (S2 – 3))/2 = (|3 – 2| – (2 – 3))/2 = (1 – (-1))/2 = (1+1)/2 = 1
P3 = (|3 – S3| - (3 – S3))/2 = (|3 – 2| – (3 – 2))/2 = (1 – (1))/2 = (1 – 1)/2 = 0/2 = 0

Тtherefore:

Lmax = 19 – S1,2 – (P1 + P2 + P3) = 19 – 9 – (0 + 1 + 0) = 10 – (1) = 9

Now let we to check the bills. Obviously the losers in the spades are three (we have assumed that each fourth and the next card are winners). The losers in the other three suits are generally six (two in each suit). Therefore, the maximum number of the losers for this distribution is 9. This is showing and the calculation.
Try to make similar calculations for the remaining 38 distributions and you will see that there is no discrepancy.
If something still bothers you, email me at bogev53@abv.bg I will gladly help you. :)
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#60 User is offline   gwnn 

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Posted 2014-April-29, 01:42

Could you answer my post? Lmax=13 for the majority of distributions.
... and I can prove it with my usual, flawless logic.
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