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Fuction

#1 User is offline   Phil 

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Posted 2012-July-12, 04:38

AKQJTxxx AKQ K xx

2C - (2S*) - pass** - (3C***)
3S - (p) - 4C - (p)
?

* - clubs or reds
** - GF
*** - pass / correct
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#2 User is offline   aguahombre 

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Posted 2012-July-12, 04:50

View PostPhil, on 2012-July-12, 04:38, said:

AKQJTxxx AKQ K xx

2C - (2S*) - pass** - (3C***)
3S - (p) - 4C - (p)
?

* - clubs or reds
** - GF
*** - pass / correct

Does "Fuction" mean 14 in some language?
"Bidding Spades to show spades can work well." (Kenberg)
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#3 User is offline   Free 

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Posted 2012-July-12, 07:46

Nice hand, too bad I have to call the TD...
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#4 User is offline   ArtK78 

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Posted 2012-July-12, 08:10

I have never been able to handle hands with 11 top tricks and 3 losers.

Clearly, if partner has an ace, I have 12 tricks. But then there is that two loser problem.

I am stymied.
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#5 User is offline   fromageGB 

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Posted 2012-July-12, 10:14

Forgive me for posting in the expert forum, but I like to put up an opinion for experts to shoot down.

4 has to be a control, and having already shown a positive for the GF pass, it is likely to be stronger than a minimum GF, which may just raise to 4. So give partner 2 controls on a good day.

It seems to me that it could still be clubs or reds, but in my experience of suction a single suit is more likely, so if opponents have the Ace I place the Ace on the left and slam is on. I am happy enough to ace ask at this point.

Stymied, yes, but even if it is not a good day, I am reluctant to bid just game.
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#6 User is offline   gnasher 

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Posted 2012-July-12, 10:54

What would 3 have meant over 2? That seems rather important in establishing the meaning of 4.
If future responses could be on topic, i.e. comparing the two suggested systems, rather than some alternative nutjob method, that'd be appreciated, thanks. - MickyB
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#7 User is offline   rduran1216 

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Posted 2012-July-12, 11:15

I assume you were 7312 phil, 4C is forcing thats for sure, a well placed K or perhaps an A, time to cue 4D now.
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#8 User is offline   gszes 

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Posted 2012-July-12, 15:41

was the pass itself that was game forcing (showing values) or was the
fact that you opened 2c caused a GF meaning pass might still be a
hand with nothing??? The reason this is important is because it can
help show the difference btn a hand that is using last train and one that
is cue bidding.

xxx xxx QJx Kxxx

xxx xxx QJxx xxx

If your pass showed values (like hand 1) then 4c has to be a cue bid but
if your hand could have been broke then 4c could be use to show a hand
with some values like hand 2. If p promised values then it is safe to bid 4n
but if p could have been broke you will have to cue bid (4d) to see if they
can show more
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#9 User is offline   SteveMoe 

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Posted 2012-July-12, 19:51

Never had to bid an 8=3=1=2 hand before. Does that mean the odds for an overtrick go up? ;)
I would expect a control from partner and a desire to explore further. I'm bidding 4 trusting have been agreed.
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#10 User is offline   MrAce 

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Posted 2012-July-13, 04:09

View Postgnasher, on 2012-July-12, 10:54, said:

What would 3 have meant over 2? That seems rather important in establishing the meaning of 4.


I think it would mean clubs and a positive hand, while pass can still have clubs but not as weak as 2nd negative. These are my assumptions though, i don't knwo their system.
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Just overcall and let nature take it's course -PhilKing



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