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After 1C - 1N

#1 User is offline   Phil 

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Posted 2012-June-15, 11:48

The background is 1 - 1N is 8-11 and 2N is 12-15.

Normally 1 - 1N - 2N shows 18-19 balanced, but this auction invariably leads to 3N.

Why not use 2N as some sort of GF hand with long clubs? 3 could inquire, and you'd have most of the 3 level to show shortness / a 3N rebid to show good clubs and 6322 or 7222?
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#2 User is offline   JLOGIC 

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Posted 2012-June-15, 12:42

Because it has value as natural and invitational? 4414 15 count for instance or (43)15 that doesn't want/need to reverse, or a 14 or 15 count with 6 clubs that didn't look right to open 1N etc. Of course don't play 1C 1N 2N as 18-19 bal lol unless your 1N doesn't promise anything, you should be bidding 3N with that.
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#3 User is offline   Phil 

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Posted 2012-June-15, 12:51

I certainly like 2N as invitational better than 2N as the 18-19.

Timo likes 2 non clubs as shortness - that helps (at least temporarily) solves the problem of your (441)4 / (431)5 / (331)-bad 6 hand types.

Not sure what kinds or 14-15 6322 hands with clubs where I don't want to open 1N and I don't want to rebid 2 on - maybe where I have two open doubletons - AKx xx xx AKxxxx. If 2x were shortness then 2N could be exactly a 6322.
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#4 User is offline   lalldonn 

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Posted 2012-June-15, 16:31

When playing with gib and you have a reversing hand after 1m - 1NT, reverse into your singleton or doubleton in a major, he will pass 3NT on the next round don't worry.
"What's the big rebid problem? After 1♦ - 1♠, I can rebid 1NT, 2♠, or 2♦."
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