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Slam hand 2

Poll: Slam hand 2 (8 member(s) have cast votes)

Do you agree with the bidding so far?

  1. Yes (5 votes [62.50%] - View)

    Percentage of vote: 62.50%

  2. No (0 votes [0.00%])

    Percentage of vote: 0.00%

  3. Don't know (3 votes [37.50%] - View)

    Percentage of vote: 37.50%

  4. I would never play such absurd methods (0 votes [0.00%])

    Percentage of vote: 0.00%

What will you bid now?

  1. Pass (1 votes [12.50%] - View)

    Percentage of vote: 12.50%

  2. 5H (2 votes [25.00%] - View)

    Percentage of vote: 25.00%

  3. 5N (0 votes [0.00%])

    Percentage of vote: 0.00%

  4. 6C (5 votes [62.50%] - View)

    Percentage of vote: 62.50%

  5. Other (0 votes [0.00%])

    Percentage of vote: 0.00%

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#1 User is offline   phil_20686 

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Posted 2012-March-08, 05:26



So transfer to 1N can contain balanced invites with no 4cM both weak, inv and GF or GF hands with exactly 4M and longer diamonds.
The physics is theoretical, but the fun is real. - Sheldon Cooper
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#2 User is offline   inquiry 

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Posted 2012-March-08, 21:03

View Postphil_20686, on 2012-March-08, 05:26, said:



So transfer to 1N can contain balanced invites with no 4cM both weak, inv and GF or GF hands with exactly 4M and longer diamonds.


2 was a reverse, and 3 described as 7+. Was three clubs game forcing? Can I assume that 4 in addition to being a cue-bid (as described) is also much stronger than the implied 7+ earlier? Since with a diamond control, partner didn't bid 3NT in case we were weaker and looking for 3nt?

With the above assumption, six clubs looks like a minimum spot. Six notrump (at matchpoint) is in play, and even 7C is possible xxx xx AKQ JTxxx. I think I try 5 here although I don't think that will get us grand relieable even when it makes.
--Ben--

#3 User is offline   bigbenvic 

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Posted 2012-March-08, 22:22

Can partner have a 4153 hand?

He is either balenced no 4cM or 4M 5+D, if the former then has he denied a spade stop with 4? Or would he cue here if slam interested and could still hold the K/

I would bid 5h regardless, 6 is a minimum for me now.
If he fails to bid 5 I'll play 6 if he bids 5 I'd like to try 5NT as a "I'm not finished, do you have more to say" bid but I still need him to have 5 losers covered, Ks covers one, Ad covers the second, the KD would only cover the third and I still need to get rid of 2 heart losers. So over 5 I'll bid 6c and if he has the world he can kick on.
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#4 User is offline   han 

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Posted 2012-March-09, 12:43

I bid 6C now. I think that partner has shown a extras by bidding 4D, so he has considerably more than a 7-count. It is certainly possible that 6C is on a hook. It is also possible that it is a bit better, or completely laydown.

I don't think that we should try for a grand slam. It's true that if we bid 5H we can't have much more than this in terms of HCP or shape, but I find it hard to imagine a hand for partner with which we want to be in a grand slam and he wouldn't have jumped to 4C or cued past 5C.
Please note: I am interested in boring, bog standard, 2/1.

- hrothgar
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#5 User is offline   mikeh 

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Posted 2012-March-09, 13:12

I'm not sure I am drawing the correct inferences, but it seems to me that responder has denied the 4M-longer hand, so is known to have an invitational balanced hand with no major (I am reading the 4 call as showing a non-minimum for the auction to date).

He can't have, for example, all of the K and the Q and the diamond AK and the club J, since that is a gf. I'm not saying that grand is impossible, but I am saying that it seems speculative and difficult to get to no matter what I do now.


For one thing, even if we have NO side suit losers, he might hold xxx in clubs and now grand is at best borderline.

So I bid 6.
'one of the great markers of the advance of human kindness is the howls you will hear from the Men of God' Johann Hari
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