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Who should apologize? ATB 2 hands, a sequence, a contract and a discussion...

#1 User is offline   Hanoi5 

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Posted 2012-February-29, 20:07

Teams, 2/1.



After the hand is over and 12 tricks are taken (by the way the 10 was led, East covered the Jack with the King, do you finesse or play for the drop?):

North: Why didn't you cue-bid clubs?
South: 3 might be still looking for 3NT
North: You had to cue-bid clubs! I thought we had a loser there
South: and if 3 is a cue-bid, why didn't you cue-bid hearts?

View Postwyman, on 2012-May-04, 09:48, said:

Also, he rates to not have a heart void when he leads the 3.


View Postrbforster, on 2012-May-20, 21:04, said:

Besides playing for fun, most people also like to play bridge to win


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#2 User is offline   mgoetze 

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Posted 2012-February-29, 20:17

100% North.
"One of the painful things about our time is that those who feel certainty are stupid, and those with any imagination and understanding are filled with doubt and indecision"
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#3 User is offline   aguahombre 

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Posted 2012-February-29, 20:47

Neither should apologize. They should sit at the bar, later, and rethink their agreements.

If we accept 3S as a cooperative cue for a diamond slam under the given conditions (1H opening), then the conversation can continue about the shape shown by 2NT already, the advisability of using 4NT for Wood when a minor is trump, etc.

If, the pair decides 1NT would have been the correct opening bid, then a whole different discussion of methods would ensue.

Actually, if 2NT guarantees two diamonds (which it should), I would recommend 4D after 3S as a "take-over" RKC right there.
"Bidding Spades to show spades can work well." (Kenberg)
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#4 User is offline   the hog 

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Posted 2012-February-29, 21:22

I would have opened 1NT. The hand is balanced and in the correct range. South should bid 4C over 3S.
Both pairs are to blame; certainly not 100% Nth.
"The King of Hearts a broadsword bears, the Queen of Hearts a rose." W. H. Auden.
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#5 User is offline   Hanoi5 

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Posted 2012-February-29, 21:33

Actually, that was gonna be a second question on this hand, is the north hand a 1NT (15-17) opening bid?

I would consider it too strong for that. I see two people here don't, any other thoughts on the matter?

View Postwyman, on 2012-May-04, 09:48, said:

Also, he rates to not have a heart void when he leads the 3.


View Postrbforster, on 2012-May-20, 21:04, said:

Besides playing for fun, most people also like to play bridge to win


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#6 User is offline   Statto 

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Posted 2012-February-29, 21:46

Assuming you open 1NT with all 5M-332 in range, it looks too strong with the good spots in , prime cards in other suits, and generally the high cards where you want them to be.
A perfection of means, and confusion of aims, seems to be our main problem – Albert Einstein
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#7 User is offline   aguahombre 

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Posted 2012-February-29, 22:51

View Postaguahombre, on 2012-February-29, 20:47, said:

If, the pair decides 1NT would have been the correct opening bid, then a whole different discussion of methods would ensue.



View PostHanoi5, on 2012-February-29, 21:33, said:

I would consider it too strong for that. I see two people here don't, any other thoughts on the matter?

Agree with you, and pls note there was only one above your follow-up post who stated 1NT was the right opening. I merely mentioned that if the pair decides 1NT should have been opened, their discussion would take a different tack.

I liked the auction thru 3S, and suggested a Minorwood interpretation of 4D.
"Bidding Spades to show spades can work well." (Kenberg)
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#8 User is offline   Codo 

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Posted 2012-March-01, 03:03

Too strong for 1 NT, even if you play that style.

What to bid after 3 is tricky. I doubt that it is certain to anybody that 3 would be a cuebid for diamonds.

4 was a nothing bid. Even if partner makes a "probe for 3 NT" it is not forbidden to show the hand.
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#9 User is offline   Nabooba 

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Posted 2012-March-01, 03:46

View PostCodo, on 2012-March-01, 03:03, said:

Too strong for 1 NT, even if you play that style.

What to bid after 3 is tricky. I doubt that it is certain to anybody that 3 would be a cuebid for diamonds.

4 was a nothing bid. Even if partner makes a "probe for 3 NT" it is not forbidden to show the hand.


I would also open 1NT playing 15-17. You play 14-16 then announce that! Sometimes you can have a maximum for your bid. What do you mean "that" style? Do you open balanced hands with some other bid?
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#10 User is offline   TWO4BRIDGE 

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Posted 2012-March-01, 03:46

View PostHanoi5, on 2012-February-29, 20:07, said:

Teams, 2/1.




1H - 2D! ( GF )
2NT* - 3D ( extra length )
3NT - 4D**
4H ( 1st step = 0/3 ) - 6D ( Rule: "Might as well bid 6 as 5D does not score well if 3NT+ were making"; Opener showing "extras" has a lot to do with this decision also; 2H! instead of 2NT would have shown "any minimum" )

My system:
*2NT = "extras" ( 15+ ), denies 4 cards ( Edit: Alternate bidding to 2NT shows minimum open w/o 4 cards :
......... 1H - 2D!, 2H!( any min ) - 2S! ( asks ), 2NT .... )
3NT = denies extra length (Edit: 3H instead would have shown extra length )
**4D = does not relish NT; might as well take this as Minorwood when going past 3NT... and no other suit is "in the picture" .

This post has been edited by TWO4BRIDGE: 2012-March-02, 11:53

Don Stenmark
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"imo by far in bridge the least understood concept is how to bid over a jump-shift
( 1M-1NT!-3m-?? )." ....Justin Lall

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#11 User is offline   gnasher 

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Posted 2012-March-01, 03:48

I agree with North's upgrade.

I think 3 should be a try for 3NT, and doesn't promise spade control - I'd bid it with QJx AKxxx Kxx xx. On South's actual hand he knows he opposite A, but doesn't know he's opposite a slam try.

Opposite 3, 4 would suggest slam interest opposite a weak notrump. For slam to be good opposite a weak notrump, South needs to find partner with specifically Axx AKxxx Kx xxx. That probably justifies a 4 bid, but I can see why South didn't do it.

After South's 4, I think it's reasonable for North to drive slam. Even if he thinks South has denied a club control, slam is still cold opposite KQx x AQ10xxxx xx and good opposite KQx Qx AQ10xxx xx.
... that would still not be conclusive proof, before someone wants to explain that to me as well as if I was a 5 year-old. - gwnn
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#12 User is offline   Fluffy 

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Posted 2012-March-01, 03:48

if north thinks there is no club control in south´s hand he shouldn´t bid keycard. 4 is easiest.

north´s 3 shows stopper, not necesarilly control

south´s 4 is hopeless. He has set trumps already with 3 so no reason to bypass a control.
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#13 User is offline   TWO4BRIDGE 

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Posted 2012-March-01, 04:11

View PostFluffy, on 2012-March-01, 03:48, said:

He has set trumps already with 3 so no reason to bypass a control.

Does 3 really "set" trumps ?
Some might say 3 is "weak" ( a minimum 2/1 initially ) and 4 "weaker still" .
Don Stenmark
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#14 User is offline   Cyberyeti 

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Posted 2012-March-01, 04:14

View PostNabooba, on 2012-March-01, 03:46, said:

I would also open 1NT playing 15-17. You play 14-16 then announce that! Sometimes you can have a maximum for your bid. What do you mean "that" style? Do you open balanced hands with some other bid?

This is not a 17 count, it's better than that.

I'd routinely open 1N on many 17 counts with 5 hearts, but here you have 2 aces and an AK, plus the 109 of hearts.

Compare with:

KJx
Axxxx
KJx
AJ

How many tricks do you take opposite say

Q109x
Qxx
AQx
KQx

10 or 11 most of the time, compare this with the original hand where you have excellent chances of 12 tricks.
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#15 User is offline   P_Marlowe 

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Posted 2012-March-01, 09:14

Hi,

3S is value showing, unless 3D was already showing SI,
which I doubt.

4D showed SI, 4NT got the information we have 1KC, North
bids 6D, next bord.
North knowes, the partnership is missing only 1KC, and would
South really show SI with A10xxxx?
The only reason not to bid 6 D is the fear, the trump suit
is not reasonable, which is ...

Hence the blame goes to North, th whole discussion about the
meaning of 3S is ...

With kind regards
Marlowe
With kind regards
Uwe Gebhardt (P_Marlowe)
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#16 User is offline   P_Marlowe 

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Posted 2012-March-01, 09:18

View PostHanoi5, on 2012-February-29, 21:33, said:

Actually, that was gonna be a second question on this hand, is the north hand a 1NT (15-17) opening bid?

I would consider it too strong for that. I see two people here don't, any other thoughts on the matter?

If 5 cards majors are allowed, this is a 1NT opening bid, you have Jx, and AJx, why should the hand be
stronger than 17HCP?
Move the Jack of diamonds to hearts, and we may start talking.

We dont open 1NT with a 5 card major, but this is partnership agreement.

With kind regards
Marlowe
With kind regards
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#17 User is offline   aguahombre 

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Posted 2012-March-01, 09:37

It seems the upgraders have the support of the KNR toy (18.65).
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#18 User is offline   mich-b 

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Posted 2012-March-01, 09:45

Whatever each partner may think about the early rounds of bidding , once North has Key-Carded , and found out there are not 2 aces missing it is his responsibility to bid slam.
If he still isn't sure - he should not have bid 4NT. Bidding 4NT and signing off when there are enough aces is a poor approach.
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#19 User is offline   mikeh 

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Posted 2012-March-01, 10:03

1. Opening 1N as North seems silly to me. People who look only at the hcp are missing an important aspect of hand valuation. This is clearly worth upgrading. We have 7 controls, and 4321 undervalues controls, and we have a good 5 card suit, where the 4321 count gives no weight to the extra winner we can expect.


2. 3 as a cuebid makes no sense unless the partnership plays that 3 'sets trump' and eliminates 3N. For so long as 3N is in play (and why wouldn't it be), 3-level bids are probes for that contract. In addition, unless 3 sets trump, it is a basic bidding error to cuebid before setting trump. When one partner makes an 'inferential cuebid' and the other partner isn't sure what it is, madness ensues.

3.North has a slam try opposite a 2/1 with rebiddable diamonds, especially since S didn't make a vanilla sign off in 3N. I like 4N over 3 provided that this is seen as natural.....18-19 balanced, which is what we hold if we learn how to value our holdings.

S has a clear 6 call over that.

How would I keycard? Well, I don't like keycarding when the answer won't let me place the contract with confidence, and how can N count tricks after finding S with 1 keycard? But if I were forced to, it would be 4 over 3, as kickback, or I'd bid 4 to set trump and then 4N, if kickback were not available.

For those whose methods use 4N as keycard at every opportunity......firstly, I suggest a serious rethink and second, bid 4 over 3 to at least give you more room and another round of bidding, such that you'll hopefully know a little more.
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#20 User is offline   wyman 

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Posted 2012-March-01, 10:05

Agree with 1H-2D; 2N-3D [north is far too good for a 1N opener]

I don't think 3S is a cue (N may be minimal and worried about 3N), so I think N should bid 4D agreeing trump (and not RKC). 4S by south, and now north can bid 4N RKC, after which you'll play 6D (notwithstanding north's inexplicable 5D bid on this hand).
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