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jump cue

#1 User is offline   gwnn 

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Posted 2009-May-26, 15:22

1m-x-p-3m
1M-x-p-3M

what are these?
... and I can prove it with my usual, flawless logic.
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#2 User is offline   helene_t 

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Posted 2009-May-26, 15:40

What about some 1-suiter? Then a cue followed by change of suit could show a more flexible hand.
The world would be such a happy place, if only everyone played Acol :) --- TramTicket
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#3 User is offline   Cascade 

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Posted 2009-May-26, 15:50

We play them as invitational 5/5 hands but not (1♠) X (Pass) 3♠ for some reason which I can't think of at the moment.
Wayne Burrows

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#4 User is offline   FrancesHinden 

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Posted 2009-May-26, 15:53

I play the first as a single-suited game force in one of the majors, too strong to jump to 4major. After 1C x P 3C P doubler can bid 3D to ask, other bids showing a very unusual hand. After 1D x P 3D P doubler bids 3H unless he has a very unusual hand, then 4m agrees hearts, 3S shows spades.

I play the second as the same, but specifically the other major.

As you say, that means that cue followed by a new suit is interested in more than one strain (either another suit or NT).

I play 1m x 4m as weak (in HCP) hand with both majors
I don't think 1M x 4M is defined in our 'competitive bidding' file.
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#5 User is offline   Impact 

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Posted 2009-May-26, 20:22

1. Both DAB (directional asking bid)= Western Cue Bid translated I believe, as the simple cue bid starts transfers.

2. I have the same agreement as Frances (1m) X (P) 4m which I believe to be standard

3. (1M ) X (P) 4M is undefined but consitent with other principles would be assumed to be a transfer with very long suit that does not have tenaces to protect...but I shall make a note!

regards
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#6 User is offline   whereagles 

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Posted 2009-May-27, 03:07

1m-x-p-3m

I have this defined as 44 majors, around 8-10 hcp.


1M-x-p-3M

I don't have this one agreed. I think it would make sense to define it as a stopper ask with, say,

xx
xx
xxx
AKQxxx
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#7 User is offline   gwnn 

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Posted 2009-May-27, 04:09

Nuno, if 3m is 8-10 with 4 cards in both majors, why can't you just bid 2m and then 3M over CHO's 2M rebid?
... and I can prove it with my usual, flawless logic.
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#8 User is offline   gnasher 

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Posted 2009-May-27, 04:49

I'm not sure where I got this from, but I thought it was normal to play either of these as something like AK10xxx in a minor, asking partner to bid 3NT with a stop and sufficient top tricks. I can't say I've ever bid it, though.
... that would still not be conclusive proof, before someone wants to explain that to me as well as if I was a 5 year-old. - gwnn
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#9 User is offline   whereagles 

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Posted 2009-May-27, 05:24

gwnn, on May 27 2009, 10:09 AM, said:

Nuno, if 3m is 8-10 with 4 cards in both majors, why can't you just bid 2m and then 3M over CHO's 2M rebid?

That is the classical way to bid it, and you can certainly bid it that way.

By assigning the jump cue to that hand, the cue 2m can become 11+ hcp always, making the classical auction forcing.

Not that having a forcing auction here is terribly useful, but it certainly would make Ken happy :)
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