I've got a general question concerning captaincy which is a big issue for my main partnership at the moment. I'm not sure if it belongs in the Advanced/Expert forum, but I've got disagreeing opinions by different Experts already so I'm posting here to get some more ;-).
We were playing in a serious event and the following hand came up:
I was South. Usually we play 4m if natural and uncontested as RKCB for that suit, especially if a fit in the suit has been agreed before (which is clearly the case with this hand). Accordingly, 4♣ could be RKCB here.
Also it should deny substantial spade values in any case (quite likely anyway given the lead directing double from West).
Now I was wondering if partner was really asking for Aces at this point. After some pondering I decided that it's not really useful for 1NT opener to do this so I decided it must be a waiting bid and cuebid 4♥. Partner, however, thought I was showing 0/3 keycards and signed off in 5♣ (I assumed we are lacking ♦ control and passed accordingly).
Slam in either minor was cold so we lost many IMPs on this board. I admit that this was on the verge of masterminding, because I should have kept it simple since I could have known that he is asking for keycards since we had never discussed this situation.
We then had a discussion where I took the position that 1NT opener should never ask for anything and leave that to responder regardless what he holds. Actually I can hardly imagine a situation where opener is actually in a better position to ask for keycards than responder. Partner disagrees, claiming that this hand is a good example to support his position. According to him it is clearcut that 4♣ must be RKCB in this sequence.
Now I have asked a few people about their opinion. Gerben said straight away that 4♣ shows a positive hand for slam but is not KCB since opener never asks and that 4♦ could be played as KCB in this sequence, alternately responder starts cuebidding.
Unfortunately the strong players from my club I usually consult are disagreeing, claiming like my partner that 4♣ is the one exception from this rule in this case so should be ace ask. Partner refuses to talk about this at the moment because he's getting emotional in no time when the issue comes up. So it's major problem for me and I need your opinion.
1. What would you have assumed at the table playing with your regular partner?
2. Was I really that far off (or even masterminding) when assuming that partner can't be asking but 4♣ must be waiting and positive?
3. Does it make sense at all for 1NT opener to make any asking bids, ever?
Thanks in advance for any comments.
--Sigi
p-1NT-p-2♠(1);
X-3♣(2)-p-3♠(3);
p-4♣...
(1) transfer to ♣ (6+♣ or 5+5+ minors)
(2) shows 3+♣
(3) shows a ♠ splinter Edit: shortness, not limiting