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Is there a consensus II Same hand, stronger

Poll: What is your strategy now? (36 member(s) have cast votes)

What is your strategy now?

  1. Would have raised to 2[he] previously. (1 votes [2.78%])

    Percentage of vote: 2.78%

  2. Would bid 2[he] after 1NT. (32 votes [88.89%])

    Percentage of vote: 88.89%

  3. Would bid 2[cl] after 1NT. (2 votes [5.56%])

    Percentage of vote: 5.56%

  4. Would pass 1NT. (1 votes [2.78%])

    Percentage of vote: 2.78%

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#1 User is offline   Gerben42 

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Posted 2005-December-14, 04:22

Scoring: MP


You open 1, showing 4+ (still not 'sayc' but natural), partner responds 1. If you bid 1 partner bids 1NT.
Two wrongs don't make a right, but three lefts do!
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#2 User is offline   FrancesHinden 

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Posted 2005-December-14, 04:26

Do you need both polls?
Isn't the answer to one of them sufficient to deduce the answer to the other?
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#3 User is offline   Gerben42 

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Posted 2005-December-14, 04:32

Maybe I should have made a zillion-possibility poll like "would have done A with the first hand and B with the second hand", might work better.
Two wrongs don't make a right, but three lefts do!
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#4 User is offline   Fluffy 

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Posted 2005-December-14, 06:08

Bidding your singleton doesn't seem like a good new option to me anyway :)
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#5 User is offline   mila85 

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Posted 2005-December-14, 06:22

2 - 4th suit forcing
I show invitional values, ask about 5 and club stopper. WTP?
Sorry, my english is not perfect :(
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#6 User is offline   pclayton 

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Posted 2005-December-14, 06:54

I think the modern treatment is to raise directly with a moderate 4=3=5=1 and make the delayed raise with roughly a King better than a minny.
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#7 User is offline   Fluffy 

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Posted 2005-December-14, 18:28

mila85, on Dec 14 2005, 12:22 PM, said:

2 - 4th suit forcing
I show invitional values, ask about 5 and club stopper. WTP?

The problem I see is 2 is a convention used by responder, not opener ;).Of course you can play it the way you want.
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#8 User is offline   fred 

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Posted 2005-December-14, 18:50

pclayton, on Dec 14 2005, 12:54 PM, said:

I think the modern treatment is to raise directly with a moderate 4=3=5=1 and make the delayed raise with roughly a King better than a minny.

Agree with this at least as far as North America goes. I am sure there are experts in other parts of the world that would find your statement bizarre.

As far as I can tell it is universally accepted by the expert community in North America that 1D-1H-1S-1NT-2H promises extra values.

With a minimum 4351 hand, it is OK to bid 1S as long as you are prepared to Pass partner's 1NT or 2D rebid. Otherwise you should raise to 2H on the first round.

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#9 User is offline   ArcLight 

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Posted 2005-December-14, 21:12

Fred,
I'm not disputing what you say. But I always thought that in general a delayed raise as opposed to a direct raise showed a weaker or flawed hand.
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#10 User is offline   mcphee 

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Posted 2005-December-15, 12:42

I'm in Freds camp with the secondary raise indicating more values than the direct raise first time. Some players feel that you should show 4S after the H bid so as not to miss the possible 4-4 fit.

The possibility responder can have 2-4-2-5 shape and has become end played into bidding 1NT with no preference on a minimum hand quite likely. The extra values allow greater comfort playing a poor 4-3 fit.
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#11 User is offline   Fluffy 

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Posted 2005-December-16, 17:57

I disagree with everyone as IMOP the main difference between direct and delayed raise is that 1 has 4 cards, and the other 3 :P

Also different is that 1 has minimum while the other shows extras.
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