BBO Discussion Forums: 1 !S and NT inverted responses - BBO Discussion Forums

Jump to content

Page 1 of 1
  • You cannot start a new topic
  • You cannot reply to this topic

1 !S and NT inverted responses

#1 User is offline   ttti 

  • Pip
  • Group: Members
  • Posts: 7
  • Joined: 2018-February-09

Posted 2018-February-09, 03:30

I have read an article (from Sweden I suppose), which mentioned a system, where the "normal" 1 and 1 NT responses to (at least) 1 are inverted. 1 denies 4 card and . 1 NT is 4+ .

I don't find this article any more. Have You heard or played this kind of system? What are the point ranges for 1 and 1 NT?
0

#2 User is offline   fromageGB 

  • PipPipPipPipPipPipPip
  • Group: Advanced Members
  • Posts: 2,679
  • Joined: 2008-April-06

Posted 2018-February-09, 04:22

I haven't heard of it been used over a minor open, but I do play something similar - Kaplan inversion - over a 1 open. My 1NT is 5+ spades, but I have heard of 4. The point ranges are related to those you would use for the bids as you would play uninverted, so 1NT is expected to be 6+ hcp unlimited, while 1 can now be also unlimited, as it is forcing. So a basic flat 6-10 can bid 1 and pass 1NT, while a stronger responder would bid on.
0

#3 User is offline   ttti 

  • Pip
  • Group: Members
  • Posts: 7
  • Joined: 2018-February-09

Posted 2018-February-09, 05:31

View PostfromageGB, on 2018-February-09, 04:22, said:

I haven't heard of it been used over a minor open, but I do play something similar - Kaplan inversion - over a 1 open. My 1NT is 5+ spades, but I have heard of 4. The point ranges are related to those you would use for the bids as you would play uninverted, so 1NT is expected to be 6+ hcp unlimited, while 1 can now be also unlimited, as it is forcing. So a basic flat 6-10 can bid 1 and pass 1NT, while a stronger responder would bid on.


Thank You. Now I see the light. I misread (and more probably misunderstood) the article, I thought it is applied after (2+) 1 .

So 1 NT is forcing as 1 . What about the same approach after (4+) 1 ?
0

#4 User is offline   steve2005 

  • PipPipPipPipPipPipPip
  • Group: Advanced Members
  • Posts: 3,148
  • Joined: 2010-April-22
  • Gender:Male
  • Location:Hamilton, Canada
  • Interests:Bridge duh!

Posted 2018-February-09, 06:53

View Postttti, on 2018-February-09, 05:31, said:

So 1 NT is forcing as 1 . What about the same approach after (4+) 1 ?

There are methods that play 1N as forcing after 1 but they are not common. A method using Gazilli or something similar over 1 is one.
But Kaplan Inversion is over 1 openings.
Sarcasm is a state of mind
0

#5 User is offline   Kungsgeten 

  • PipPipPipPipPip
  • Group: Full Members
  • Posts: 942
  • Joined: 2012-April-15
  • Gender:Male
  • Location:Skövde, Sweden

Posted 2018-February-12, 16:50

View Postttti, on 2018-February-09, 05:31, said:

Thank You. Now I see the light. I misread (and more probably misunderstood) the article, I thought it is applied after (2+) 1 .

So 1 NT is forcing as 1 . What about the same approach after (4+) 1 ?


After 1-1NT (showing 5+ spades) you sometimes have to rebid a 3-card club suit, if you have 2-5-3-3 distribution. It is more problematic after 1-1NT, if 1NT shows 5+ spades:

- 1-4-5-3 would probably need to rebid 2, if too weak to reverse. Or maybe 2?
- 2-4-4-3 would also rebid 2. Not a problem if 1 promises an unbalanced hand.
- 2-3-5-3?

Also I'm not really sure what the benefits of this treatment would be, but a low-level forcing bid can probably be useful. Over a 1 opening:

1 = Artificial and forcing. Usually 0-4 spades and 0-3 hearts, but could have longer majors if game forcing.
1 = 4+.
1NT = 5+, forcing.
0

Page 1 of 1
  • You cannot start a new topic
  • You cannot reply to this topic

1 User(s) are reading this topic
0 members, 1 guests, 0 anonymous users